French language Q&A Forum

Hi! Could someone explain why "à nouveau" is preferred here to "encore"? Do they have slightly different meanings?

In this lesson one of the questions was "Marie a manqué l'école ". I would have answered this with "Marie (has) missed school." Of course this answer wasn't available and the right answer was "Marie didn't go to school." Wouldn't this be easier to understand if written like " Marie n'est pas alleé à école ?" or are all similar events ( not going/doing somewhere/something) expressed by  "Manquer de ?" Thanks,  Heather.

I have come across uses of le conditionnel passé avec devoir where the meaning appears to lean more towards “would have” than “should have”.  Par exemple “les alertes auraient dû sauver des vies”, by the context of the article could have been interpreted as a praise of the alert system as opposed to criticising the fact that the alert system did not do its job. Alternatively, it could mean criticism of people for not taking notice of the alerts. So, does “ils auraient dû + infinitive” always mean “should have”, or is there some subtle shading of meaning? 

Is this 2nd person plural?  And if it is why is it for a singular person?

Bonjour Madame Cécile !

The lesson states that when talking about “time”- ‘avant’ and ‘après’ are used.

Now, if a sentence is -> 

1.Mon chien court ______ le petit chat. 

I think here, the answer should be “après” (after) because in English too, we say- The cops ran after the thief. But, why is the answer “derrière” ?

2. Regarde le bel oiseau perché ________ cet arbre ! 

Why is “sur” correct ? I had opted for “dans”. How can we judge the difference between “dans/sur l’arbre” ?

3. On admire les grands palmiers ________ l’île.

Again, here the answer is “sur” ? The other options- “dans/à” are not acceptable. What is the grammatical concept behind this?

Je vous remercierais du fond de mon cœur.

Bonne journée!

Are both of these sentences grammatically correct? I understand why 'ce qui' in the first sentence is correct, but not why 'ce que' would be correct in the second one. I would be grateful for an explanation.

Ce qui à un moment donné est le substrat, n’est pas chaud

The correct kwiz answers indicate "Bien sûr qu'on se déteste!" translates to both "Of course we hate each other!" and "Of course we hate ourselves!"

These English translations have different meanings -- i.e., "I hate you and you hate me" versus "I hate myself and you hate yourself."

My question:  does the French sentence also imply these two distinctly different meanings?