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14,222 questions • 30,837 answers • 906,929 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert French teachers
14,222 questions • 30,837 answers • 906,929 learners
It is my understand that both of them mean 'the one'
Brief explanation on how to know when w verb is followed by à, de or pour
Qui peut m'aider s'il vous plaît 🙏🙏
Re:
Le temps des deux parties m'a confuse dans cette phrase.
Il y a un exemple ou on utiliserait le subjonctif passe comme ca:
depuis que j'etais petite pendant l'hiver, on a campe dans les montagnes dans le canton de Geneve.
It does rather put modern man in a bad light, but that aside a good dictation exercise.
My main point though is that the woman's diction was clear but the man's was muffled and difficult to understand.
I sometimes see references to "des" as being a plural partitive article.
This relates to uncountable/mass nouns. So my query is:-
How is it possible to have a plural uncountable noun?
and then to try to express "some" of this uncountable/mass noun?
Why is it "Tarte au Maroilles" and not "Tarte aux Maroilles"?
Is opposé used rather than en face de ever? In what circumstance would I use opposé(e)? Would I be understood if I used opposé and not en face de? Merci.
It seems that requérir can double as meaning both "require" and "request",
despite the fact that the translations you gave for it were:
requérir (to require/call for [something])and did not mention 'request':
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