French language Q&A Forum

Yes “finissait” is the right answer here, but the verb “terminer” is more appropriate here.

Je pense

It seemed to me that any time I was tested on "C'est" or "Il Est", I was simply guessing.

The closer a question matched one of the examples in the Lesson - the more likely I was to choose the correct answer. But if there was no exact match with an example in the lesson - I was stumped.

With respect, I found the following article somewhat easier to follow than the Lesson on this page:

https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/cest-vs-il-est/

That article uses the descriptor "determiner". IMO that descriptor seems to clarify everything for me.

There's a good article on determiners here:

https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/determiners/

So a determiner is just a posh name for a word that modifies a noun. It's similar to an adjective

The Lawless article is several times longer than the KwizIQ article. But if you ignore any material that is not mentioned in this current KwizIQ article, then the amount of instructional text will be about the same.

Here's how I read the Lawless article:

 (1) Read every word from the start until just before the red warning triangle.  .

 (2) You can ignore the material immediately after the red triangle. It's useful info, but it's not tested by KwizIQ.

 (3) Restart reading at "2. C’est and il est with inanimate nouns".

 (4) Ignore everything after the green scales icon. Again, it's useful info but - but not tested in KwizIQ.

Thanks

I am confused. Sometimes Ayez is used sometimes Ayons is used.

For example "Ayez confiance mes amis" I was corrected from Ayons

But here is one example Ayons foi en notre force . 

Is there a rule or we just have to know, like vocabulary

So, formally, il faut ranger ta chambre can also be written as il te faut ranger la/ta chambre, right?

By the time you are ready he will be gone already sounds very Jewish in English, already. The native speaker would say he will already be gone.

Comment: This may be grammatically correct in French, but in English, if you say that two people are ‘kissing themselves’, that would literally mean that each of them is kissing their OWN bodies (or parts of), And of course, this would be bizarre. 

I got this question:

How would you say "You went out even though I wasn't OK with it." ?

And I answered with this:

Tu es sortie bien que je n'étais pas d'accord.

Apparently the right answer was Tu es sortie bien que je ne suis pas d'accord, but I don't understand why je ne suis pas d'accord is in the present tense.

To me that sentence means "You went out even though I'm not OK with it.", as in "I'm not ok with in general", but the way the English sentence is written in the question means that the speaker wasn't ok about a particular going-out. Why would one use the present tense there even though the "not being ok with it" was done in the past?

https://i.ibb.co/Ch7Q76z/question.png