Le Passé Antérieur?Is there some reason you don't cover Le Passé Antérieur in your lessons? Although it's probably not common, I'd still like to understand the structure. Am I correct to translate "I left after I'd eaten" ... or ... "after I'd eaten I left" as
- Je fus parti aprés que j'eus mangé
- Aprés que j'eus mangé, je fus parti
And am I also correct to translate "you left after you'd eaten" ... or ... "after you'd eaten you left" as
- vous fûtes parti aprés que vous eûtes mangé
- Aprés que vous eûtes mangé, vous fûtes parti
In both cases I'm not sure if both verbs use antérieur form, or just the "after" verb?
I've used the Kwiziq library search to try and find a lesson (or any information) on how to use "à partir de", but no luck. For example, can a translation of "from the 24th of July to the 5th of August" be "à partir du 24 juillet au 5 août" as well as "du 24 juillet au 5 août"? What's the rule for using "à partir de"?
And why isn't the rule included in this lesson?
I am looking at this sentence - 'Je passerais beaucoup de temps à prendre soin de lui, en lui parlant, le caressant, lui donnant des friandises - après m'être assuré qu'elles sont adaptées à ses besoins bien sûr !' - and thinking that the verb with 'adaptées' would naturally go into the subjunctive ('soient adaptées'), not the indicative, because the whole scenario is speculative rather than real. Or does this kind of hypothetical writing not normally call for the subjunctive?
Why is the future perfect used in this sentence: "Mais personne mieux que Claude Nougaro n'aura incarné..."?
Would present tense not work here?
I am looking at this sentence - 'Toi qui me faisais sauter sur tes genoux pendant des heures sans que je n'aie jamais l'impression de t'ennuyer' - and wondering about the n' before the jamais. He is saying 'without me ever feeling', not 'without me never feeling'.
Why use 'sont' not 'est' ?
I think 'tout ce que' is musculin singulier
One of the Kwizzes had "Achètes-en deux ou trois." for which the answer was "buy two or three of them". I think very often one would omit "of them" in English and wonder if that was a second correct answer, as it was a single-choice question ?
Bonjour — do you not use the liaison after “vais”? Is it optional or forbidden? Merci.
Is there some reason you don't cover Le Passé Antérieur in your lessons? Although it's probably not common, I'd still like to understand the structure. Am I correct to translate "I left after I'd eaten" ... or ... "after I'd eaten I left" as
- Je fus parti aprés que j'eus mangé
- Aprés que j'eus mangé, je fus parti
And am I also correct to translate "you left after you'd eaten" ... or ... "after you'd eaten you left" as
- vous fûtes parti aprés que vous eûtes mangé
- Aprés que vous eûtes mangé, vous fûtes parti
In both cases I'm not sure if both verbs use antérieur form, or just the "after" verb?
For the sentence, j'ai grandi en regardant les matches avec lui, how come it's not in the imparfait? He was growing up over a period of time, and watched several matches during this time, so it was a repeated action. I thought it should be imparfait. Please advise.
Please can someone explain why this isn’t ‘toutes simples?’
Merci!
Find your French level for FREE
Test your French to the CEFR standard
Find your French level