French language Q&A Forum

In the sentence "Nous faisons de progrès ensemble." Could one say "On fait de progrès ensemble"?

I would translate this as 'who are you speaking to? but I know the correct translation is 'who is speaking to you?' and I don't understand why so I wonder if you could explain please?

Question:  why does this mean "we fear that he would change his mind" ? Is it the ne-que=only? that he changes his mind? 

This was on my Kwizig test and I just don't see anything that indicates "would."

merci, 

anne

Instead of 'si ça avait été mes œufs' could you say 'si cela avait été mes œufs' - or would that be too formal ?

It seems that while it's technically correct to use indicative with "apres que", most people in France use the subjunctive in daily practice, and actually find it weird if you use the indicative. The practice is so common that it is becoming a defacto standard (e.g see https://www.francaisavecpierre.com/apres-que-subjonctif-ou-indicatif/). As I know Lawless is a strict grammarian, I will use the indicative and correct French speakers when they use the subjunctive (I also guess that I will soon be thrown out of France by a horde of angry French people :-) )

In the following example......Elle m'a récompensé pour ________ à la gym.

An alternative given for "You finally got up" was "Tu es enfin levé". I thought it would be "tu t'es enfin levé" (as the reflexive verbe is "se lever"). Just wondering if this was a typo, or am I missing something? Thanks.

In the sentence, encountered in a novel:

Il ouvrait un petit bar, y prenait une bouteille et deux verres.

Why "y"?  This seems to be a perfect example of "de plus location", as he is taking the bottle from a place.

Can someone elucidate, please"

Much obliged!