French language Q&A Forum

Why does the sentence start "à moins que tu vives" and then change to "vous vous voyiez'?  Why isn't it "tu te voies"?

In the last sentence, why does 'de' precede amener?  ie. why not "mon but est amener les gens..."

Why is the imparfait used here and not the passé composé ? The author only wrote this once. 

I know that typically, retourner is used to mean "to go back" and rendre is used to mean "to give back." But on this page: https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/auxiliary-verbs-2/ , which discusses using variable auxiliary verbs in the passé composé, it mentions that retourner can also be used transitively and in that case, it changes its meaning to "to give back." So in the passé composé, can retourner be used in the same way that rendre is?

For example, would both of these be correct?

1. J'ai rendu le livre à la bibliothèque.

2. J'ai retourné le livre à la bibliothèque.

In the translation of ” and I'm skint [US: broke] because of all the gifts that I must buy”, they use the expression ”à cause de” for because of.  I was wondering if "en raison de" could be substituted for "à cause de".  I tried it but it wasn't accepted.  Is there a subtle difference that I don't understand? 

  Quand j'utilise le mot qui et quand j'utilise le mot que ? 

So "j'aime" means "I love" but J'aime bien" means "I like"?  It would seem more, to me,  that to "aime bien" would be more than just to like but is this just idiomatic?

I like to have models to follow, and your lesson gives the following model: Rappeler + à + person being reminded + [infinitive]

Yet your quiz question "She reminds us to take our jackets"

is given the correct answer "Elle nous rappele de prendre nos vestes"

The model suggests that 'à' is a necessary part of the correct grammer but here it would be marked as wrong. I am disappointed and confused by the lesson that offers a clear model that is not correct.

In the sentence, ”She would probably have preferred for us to stay home.”, the latter part is translated by "...qu’on reste à la maison ”.  Must we use ’à la maison’ instead of ’chez nous’ because of the pronoun, ’on’?  In other words, does the use of ’on’ dictate the use of ’à la maison’, thereby prohibiting ’chez nous’ ?