French language Q&A Forum

Hi, I wonder about passer par qqn, there are examples as follows:

Yann passera par chez Laura après le travail.

Ma tante est passée par la boulangerie en venant ici

But what about: Yann passera chez Laura ... & Ma tante est passée à la boulangerie.(I've just omitted par). 

Isn't the meaning the same here ? Thank you.

why is "Hugo et toi"  vous and not ils?

Elles ne connaitront jamais mon secret is the given answer. Why will savoir in the future not do? Various dictionaries suggest they are equivalent for this kind of statement.

When the final answer to the text is presented, why is

"j'ai appris beaucoup sur la culture française"  favoured over

"j'ai beaucoup appris sur la culture française" ?

Any rules here ? 

Thanks. Paul.

do these adverbs need to agree with the object's gender?

Interesting to read but I'm getting a bit stuck on "l'on" as in "il ne faut pas que l'on nous voie".  Why is the "l' " necessary? What does it refer to?

Sorry, no accents. In the sentence, I am not sure if you use l'imparfait first, and the second part of the sentence is what? subjunctive or indicative? It sounds strange to me, because in English you would say something like "little did it matter that they bit or not" or maybe "would bite"? (if I translated literally it wouldn't sound right at all: "it didn't matter that IT bites or not" (strange already because the previous sentence talks about several fish). Not quite sure because English is not my first language. But in Spanish we would use the past subjunctive in this sentence, but then in Spanish we have more tenses and we also use a lot more often the subjunctive mode than in French... 

From my understanding this is from the initial verb entendre meaning to hear. 

From the different conjugations it will be I hear myself, I hear you etc but when you add "bien" at the end why does it become "I get along"? i.e., Je m'entends bien avec...?

Thankyou,

Max