French language Q&A Forum

One of my biggest struggles has always been to understand the logic behind the changes in spelling and accents for certain verbs in the present indicative - doubling consonants or changing the accent on the letter “e”. It is not easy to find a comprehensive explanation about these changes. Instead we are just told to “memorize” the conjugations, which is frustrating.

I have searched many, many sites and textbooks, and knew that there was a reason related to pronunciation and syllable stress. I finally found a site that explains this pretty well. Perhaps this is self-evident to others, but it was not to me, and i thought it might help those like me! I hope you can access this link if you are interested!

https://languagecenter.cla.umn.edu/lc/FrenchSite1022/VERBCONer.html

Could the translation for "...sans ostracisme..." be "without exclusion"?

what is conjugation of irregular verbs in l'imperatif

Why is he so ambivalent towards France?  What is the explanation of his exile and attitude?

Can infinitif passé be used with avant de under some circumstances?

Here's an example sentence from my French class:

Il n'ira pas jouer avec ses amis avant d'avoir fini ses devoirs.

The question was to correctly conjugate the verb finir in the bolded place; I'd written finir (infinitif présent) in the first place.

Bonjour,

Just want to ask why there is "le" in this sentence. It translates to english as we can if we want to, so why the le? 

Merci :)

Pls is "assez" still serving as adverbe in a sentence where 'être' is used. - "Ma Ville est assez banale". Qu'est-ce que cela veut dire, s'il vous plaît?