French language Q&A Forum

In the exercise I am doing, I translated "we would have gone to her house" as "nous serions allés à sa maison", but the correct answer was "nous serions allés dans sa maison". Is there a difference in French between going to the location of someone's home and actually going inside, or are they both "dans"?

My question is.. What is the meaning of il est vraiment bon aujourdhui " when we only use faire for weather.. 

As « après-midi » can be either masculine or feminine, both « cet après-midi » and « cette après-midi » should be considered as correct answers in this exercise, but are not. 

The Académie-Française notes preference for use of the masculine, but still accepts both as correct. It would be reasonable to advise « cet après-midi » as the best choice, with « cette après-midi » as an acceptable alternative

https://www.dictionnaire-academie.fr/article/A9A2293

Depuis   It can only be used to express a duration of time that started in the past and still continues in the present, or "that both started and stopped in the past." Pendant can be used to describe something that happened in the past, or the future, with" no relevance to the present time". 

The above are excerpts from Todd’s answer below marked “correct”. Could someone please explain the parts within inverted commas that I find confusing. The definition of ‘Depuis’ states ‘the action is ongoing’. So, how can it have ceased in the past?  The other statement was relating to Pendant. The lesson explains that it could include the present too! 

In English, "he doesn't go to bed before midnight" means pretty much the same thing as "he doesn't ever go to bed before midnight." I mean, I chose the correct answer but this kind of thing drives me crazy. Instead of being about what it says in French, it's about what's in the quiz maker's head as they translate it to English. The literal translation is "he doesn't go to bed before midnight" but if they want to contrast that with "he doesn't ever," then the intended meaning seems to be more like "he isn't going to bed before midnight." Actually, I'm trying to guess what the quiz maker thinks the difference in meaning is between those two English sentences and I give up.

should there be a second 'e' on léchée in this case as the noun comes after the verb?

Hi, I was expecting to see a definite article (“un”) before rendez-vous in “J’ai rendez-vous cet après-midi”. Could you explain why this is not needed please?