French language Q&A Forum

I want to learn how to read french and speak fuently

Très bonne exercice pour pratiquer mon pauvre français. Je

Would it be possible to re-listen at the original speed of the announcer?

(I saw a related question below, but didn't see how to link this question to that one... so I'm starting a new question.)

My question is about how to think about the meaning of "ainsi que." It's translated as "as well as," but in some examples I run into a singular treatment when my brain seems to expect a plural. I think the lesson here for me is that this isn't a translation that works in some cases. I'm wondering if my feeling is true for American English but maybe not for other varieties?

Here's the sentence that tripped me up:

Les Etats-Unis, ________ l'Angleterre, sont un pays anglophone.The United States, as well as England, is an anglophone country.
In English, I actually wouldn't say a sentence like in the translation above - I would say "The United States, like England, is an anglophone country." OR "The United States and England are anglophone countries." I just wouldn't use "as well as" in that way. So my takeaway is that I shouldn't lean in to heavily on using this as a 1-for-1 translation. Does this work better in, say, British English? Thanks.

I have used sauf si instead of à moins que and it marked me wrong. I thougth that the two were interchangeable. 

Is it true that you use the présent de l'indicatif when you want to express a historical fact in French? 

À la dictée Pot Luck, dans la dernière phrase, pourquoi est-ce que permettre à et rendre au futur--qui permetteront au jeune de mûrir et qui rendront, etc? 

I'm having trouble understanding when to use stress pronouns vs. indirect object pronouns.  The sentence "quand un inconnu s'approchait de moi":  Why would this not be "quand un inconnu m'approchait"?  Would it be different if the verb wasn't reflexive?  

Bonjour

I wonder what is the reason on its incorrect.

Is it because that it's too formal?

Merci~

I did a small double take with this question because the English "He’s been to" is a past form of "he goes to" not "he is ". You can say "he was in France" but with a slightly different sense, more vague and without any emphasis on the going (UK English ). Perhaps this is my blind spot, but it isn’t a French construction I’d met before so I’d like to know if it’s a. common and b. idiomatic /informal?

(Apologies for reposting this question from a week ago: it’s gone from Q and A and wasn’t answered. Maybe the Helpdesk removed the post because I queried a similar sentence "On a été faire les courses = We went shopping" in a passé composé exercise.)