what am i missing?In a fill-in-the-blank quiz on this topic (Les enfants au restaurant)
I had written as an answer:
"Je crois qu'elle trouve plus rigolo de manger dans mon assietteplutôt que dans le sien!"
The correct answer was "...que dans la sienne."
My logic was that:
1. the pronouns takes the gender and number of the thing being replaced
...what is being replaced is "her plate," which had just been established as masculine.
2. In French, the possessive pronouns agree with the thing possessed and not the owner
3. The possessor is a singular girl, which would explain where a singular feminine "la sienne" COULD come from.
So, why does the correct answer seem to reference the possessor and not the possessed object in this example?
It seems that meme to express 'same' must be prefixed with the article. The english sentence (forgive me if it is 'not exactly first class english) " i got high marks same as you" would be translated as 'comme toi"....you cannot use 'meme' by itself to mean same?
Is "he felt the same" il s'est senti la même OR il a ressenti la même ??It cannot be 'même'.??
One of the possible answers for the end of the last sentence was I believe "...dès que je peux" for the translation of "as soon as I can". I chose pourrais instead of peux because I thought the sentenced implied an action in the future. I was a bit surprised to see a present tense used here. Can you explain why present is preferable to future?
In a fill-in-the-blank quiz on this topic (Les enfants au restaurant)
I had written as an answer:
"Je crois qu'elle trouve plus rigolo de manger dans mon assietteplutôt que dans le sien!"
The correct answer was "...que dans la sienne."
My logic was that:
1. the pronouns takes the gender and number of the thing being replaced
...what is being replaced is "her plate," which had just been established as masculine.
2. In French, the possessive pronouns agree with the thing possessed and not the owner
3. The possessor is a singular girl, which would explain where a singular feminine "la sienne" COULD come from.
So, why does the correct answer seem to reference the possessor and not the possessed object in this example?
Hello,
I am very confused why this is the subjunctive and not the conditional. I am still having some trouble between the two at times.
J’achèterai la voiture à condition qu’elle soit en bon état.
I’ll buy the car provided that it’s in good condition.
This seems like it should be conditional because it is saying that *if* a condition is met, something will ensue. Why is it not the conditional?
Can anyone explain why "enfants" is used in the mini quiz in a lesson about forming the plural of nouns ending in -eu? I know it's plural but thought maybe it was a trick question since "enfant" doesn't end in -eu. There are only two questions, so shouldn't they both relate to the lesson?
I know these lower level dictées are meant to be spoken slowly to suit beginners, but I find that with the over-enunciation, I often hear words that aren't there. Not sure whether this is a good thing or not?
For example:
-J'adore voyager
-C'est mon passe-temps favori
I hear :
-j'adore à voyager
-C'est mon passe au temps favori
Rendre visite has a somewhat negative meaning in terms of something being an obligation. That's fine if that's what is intended but you "aller voir" someone who is a friend.
I thought that 'le présent' is used for the present and near future tenses, so why the answer of "Anne et Antoine se promènent avec leur chien." is only makert right to "Anne and Antoine are going for a walk with their dog." ?
Can't "Anne and Antoine are walking their dog." be correct as well?
I know that the question is related to the lesson but I wan't to know if that meaning is correct in the day-to-day use.
Peut-on utiliser série au lieu d'émission dans ce contexte ?
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