Hi. Regarding the Ikea (C1) exercise https://kwiziq.learnfrenchwithalexa.com/my-languages/french/exercises/judge/1046/12894963?response=2395393&page=8
It links to this lesson and gives the best answer as "elles m'ont quand même forcée à faire tous les rayons !".
Why would it be forcée and not forcé in this case? Wouldn't it be the same as the indirect object pronouns shown in this lesson?
elles m'ont quand même forcée à faire tous les rayons !
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Sean W.Kwiziq community member
elles m'ont quand même forcée à faire tous les rayons !
This question relates to:French lesson "Special cases when the past participle agrees (in number & gender) when used with 'avoir' in the compound past in French (Le Passé Composé)"
Asked 2 years ago
Hi Sean,
It depends who the m' refers to.
if it is a woman the past participle 'forcé' will have an extra -e at the end of it, given that the direct object is before the verb.
In this exercise, it is Alice speaking so it is correct to write 'forcée'
Bonne Continuation !
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