This may have been touched on already:
Je ne comprends pas le temps que ça lui prend de se préparer !
…is cited as an example of when it’s not appropriate to use the subjunctive.. Fair enough, but why is it also included amongst those examples that do use the subjunctive? Is that an error or am I missing something?
Bonjour Richard,
"le temps que ça prend de..." implies a fact ; therefore, you will use L'Indicatif. Also, it is not the exact same structure as "le temps que [subject pronoun: je/tu/il etc.] or [noun] + [verb]":
Take a look at a previous answer in this topic:
I hope this is helpful.
Bonne journée
Bonjour à tous !
First of all, thanks for another interesting topic :)
Here, though they look the same, we are indeed looking at 2 different structures:
1- "Le temps que je fasse quelque chose, tu..." = by the time...
- In such sentences (and our related lesson), "le temps que" acts as a fixed expression, similar to "pendant que" (=while) for example. This expression is always followed by Le Subjonctif.
2- "Je ne comprends pas le temps que ça lui prend de se préparer."
- Here "le temps" is the object of "comprends" (What don't I understand? the time), and the relative clause introduced by "que" brings information of the sort of time we're talking about (i.e. the time that it takes her to get ready). Therefore you use L'Indicatif here, as we know for sure that it does take her that time.
Moreover, in this sentence, we could replace the term "temps" with another thing, like "attention" or "efforts", whereas the 1st expression is unchangeable.
I hope that's helpful!
Bonne journée à tous !
Bonjour Richard,
"Je ne comprends pas le temps que ça lui prend de se préparer ! I don't understand the time she takes to get ready!"As I see it, it is a matter of context. If there were to be a sense of frustration or irritation then I can see a case for the subjunctive mood. However, if the sense is simply that of incredulity or inability to understand, then there is no emotion being expressed and the subjunctive mood is no longer appropriate.
Bonne journéeJim
I agree with you Richard (good name btw), I've been getting confused as well. I think that if the English translation is best with "By the time" then the subjunctive is used because some doubt could be construed, whereas the example you cite translates with no element of uncertainty.
None of these answers address the question. The question is, "Why is that sentence given as an example of the lesson, when it is clearly an example of something that the lesson does not apply to?"
In other words, someone has flubbed and put the sentence where it does not belong at the top, as well as having it where is does belong at the bottom.
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