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Shouldn't "avant qu'ils aient mangé" be "avant qu'ils n'aient mangé" ?

MarianoC1Kwiziq community member

Shouldn't "avant qu'ils aient mangé" be "avant qu'ils n'aient mangé" ?

I thought you always used the "ne + subjonctif" construction after "avant que"

Asked 4 years ago
CécileKwiziq team memberCorrect answer

Hi Mariano,

You are correct in that the 'ne explétif' should be used in written form after avant que  so we have corrected this particular example.

Thank you for pointing it out!

ChrisC1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

In spoken French you'll often hear avent que without the ne explétif. So much so, that I almost get the impression it is becoming optional. I'm sure, however, that the Académie Française would disagree with that.

Shouldn't "avant qu'ils aient mangé" be "avant qu'ils n'aient mangé" ?

I thought you always used the "ne + subjonctif" construction after "avant que"

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