Aren't we using indirect object with "refuser?" Why do we use "nous" here in the second sentence? Merci!
The form of the verb, in this case, is refuser (qch) à (qqn)
Il le lui a refusé --> He has refused it to him / her. Where the direct object is "it" (le) and the indirect object him / her (lui).
Oui, il nous l'a refusé aussi --> Yes, he has refused it (l') to us (nous) also. Where l' is direct and nous indirect.
Hope this helps to explain for you.
As Jim says, lui is always ever an indirect object pronoun, never a direct one. Below you'll find all four possibilities with no pronouns, one pronoun and both pronoun (ce truc is the direct object and à Pierre is the indirect one).
Il a refusé ce truc à Pierre. -- He denied that stuff to Pierre.Il l'a refusé à Pierre. -- He denied it to Pierre.Il lui a refusé ce truc. -- He denied him that stuff.Il le lui a refusé. -- He denied it to him.
Bonjour Jim and Chris, merci pour votre aide. My apologies for mispelling indirect/direct pronouns. I was just wondering if nous and lui are both indirect pronouns, why in the 1st sentence, lui is after le, whereas in the 2nd sentence, nous is before le? Merci!
Bonjour de nouveau 仔,
Position of Double Pronouns in French - Direct Object Pronoun + Indirect Object Pronoun
Above is the link to help you with your query.
Yes, both nous and lui can act as indirect pronouns. The placement of lui in a succession of several pronouns is different than that of nous.
Il nous le montre. -- He shows it to us.Il le lui montre. -- He shows it to him.
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