If the sentence is "Elle finira en prison pour avoir tué son amant." ....why does the English translation say "She will end up in prison for killing her lover" and not 'She will end up in prison for having killed her lover"....?
For killing v. having killed
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Jacqueline V.Kwiziq community member
For killing v. having killed
This question relates to:French lesson "Expressing cause with "Pour (+avoir) fait" = For doing/having done in French"
Asked 4 weeks ago
Think it’s because "for killing" and "for having killed" have an equivalent sense in these English sentences and both are translated into French as "pour avoir tué".
The construction is similar to "après avoir + past participle" = after doing/ having done
(Après avoir fait = After doing in French (auxiliary avoir))
In this case, English isn't as precise as French. Note, though, that "...for having killed her lover" is a more literary form in English and certainly also more precise even though it isn't heard as frequently in everyday spoken English.
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