Isn't the causative always to or for the subject of the verb?
Isn't the causative always to or for the subject of the verb?
Bonjour Raymond,
Thank you for your question!
Chris's first example and explanation are great. However, if there's a reflexive pronoun in the causative, it's because the verb is itself is reflexive: se couper les cheveux versus se ranger quelque chose.
Ma mère a fait ranger ma chambre. =My mum made someone tidy up my bedroom.
Ma mère a fait ranger sa chambre à Pierre. =My mother made Pierre clean up his room.
Ma mère s'est fait couper les cheveux. = My mum had her hair cut.
We've now amended the lesson to explain this a bit better.
I hope this is helpful.
Bonne journée !
No, not always. Look at this sentence:
Ma mère a fait ranger sa chambre à Pierre. -- My mother made Pierre clean up his room.
In this example, the action lies with Pierre and consequently there is no reflexive in this sentence. You'll get the reflexive when the mother is doing the action, though:
Ma mère s'est fait ranger ma chambre. -- My mom made herself clean up my room.
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